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Science & Technology
??? What Is Gravity ???
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<blockquote data-quote="start at edge" data-source="post: 206482" data-attributes="member: 11971"><p>There are a lot of interesting aspects mentioned here, but one of them in particular got my attention – “No one has measured the speed of gravity”.</p><p>Every time I am put face to face with such an interesting and challenging issue, my mind feels happy just by being challenged and by being given something to work on. I think of myself as being atypical (also nonconformist) and probably that is the reason why in such situations I always make scenarios and try to picture everything (regarding the given subject or issue) in reality, rather than searching answers, whether in written material or on the internet and every time Ockham's razor principle seems to be proven right.</p><p>In this particular case, all this thinking made me come to the conclusion that the speed of gravity (actually its effect) is infinite. I’ll try to dig a little into this:</p><p>Let us say we have 2 objects that have a mass (let us say m1 and m2, although this is not important) and those 2 objects are 1 million light-years apart. The gravitational pull between them is indeed weak due to the huge distance, but it is there (it is not zero). To have a strong reference point, let us assume that m1 is 1 million times bigger than m2, just to be closer to the situation that m1 is not moving, only m2 does that (even though m1 is actually also moving, but 1 million times slower), so we refer only to m2. I could not find any common sense reason why m2 would start moving (proof of gravitational pull – weak but non zero) towards m1 only after 1 million years (having in mind that light speed would be the upper limit – which it is not) starting at a certain point in time. TIME prevents us from having 100% accuracy in this case, because one could say “OK, but gravity maybe was there since at least 1 million years already”, so I had to make some sort of “reverse” scenario:</p><p>m2 (the smaller object) simply explodes (for whatever reason), and its mass (all of it) is instantly converted into energy … does this mean that m1 will stop “feeling” the lack of gravitational pull only after 1 million years (or after some other period of time, according to the “supposed speed” of gravity) ??? – NO, the gravitational pull “felt” by m1 would disappear instantly, as one can not have gravitational pull towards something that does not exist in the present but existed in the past.</p><p>For others it may not be something obvious, but for me it is – something happens to TIME if a certain mass is (or is not) there.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="start at edge, post: 206482, member: 11971"] There are a lot of interesting aspects mentioned here, but one of them in particular got my attention – “No one has measured the speed of gravity”. Every time I am put face to face with such an interesting and challenging issue, my mind feels happy just by being challenged and by being given something to work on. I think of myself as being atypical (also nonconformist) and probably that is the reason why in such situations I always make scenarios and try to picture everything (regarding the given subject or issue) in reality, rather than searching answers, whether in written material or on the internet and every time Ockham's razor principle seems to be proven right. In this particular case, all this thinking made me come to the conclusion that the speed of gravity (actually its effect) is infinite. I’ll try to dig a little into this: Let us say we have 2 objects that have a mass (let us say m1 and m2, although this is not important) and those 2 objects are 1 million light-years apart. The gravitational pull between them is indeed weak due to the huge distance, but it is there (it is not zero). To have a strong reference point, let us assume that m1 is 1 million times bigger than m2, just to be closer to the situation that m1 is not moving, only m2 does that (even though m1 is actually also moving, but 1 million times slower), so we refer only to m2. I could not find any common sense reason why m2 would start moving (proof of gravitational pull – weak but non zero) towards m1 only after 1 million years (having in mind that light speed would be the upper limit – which it is not) starting at a certain point in time. TIME prevents us from having 100% accuracy in this case, because one could say “OK, but gravity maybe was there since at least 1 million years already”, so I had to make some sort of “reverse” scenario: m2 (the smaller object) simply explodes (for whatever reason), and its mass (all of it) is instantly converted into energy … does this mean that m1 will stop “feeling” the lack of gravitational pull only after 1 million years (or after some other period of time, according to the “supposed speed” of gravity) ??? – NO, the gravitational pull “felt” by m1 would disappear instantly, as one can not have gravitational pull towards something that does not exist in the present but existed in the past. For others it may not be something obvious, but for me it is – something happens to TIME if a certain mass is (or is not) there. [/QUOTE]
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